Timeline for Is Lebesgue/Borel non-measurability actually caused by non-uniqueness?
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| Jul 3, 2011 at 22:04 | comment | added | François G. Dorais | (And thanks for pointing out that Krivine paper!) | |
| Jul 3, 2011 at 22:04 | comment | added | François G. Dorais | For the second part, you only need that every real is ordinal definable since that already gives a definable wellordering of $\mathbb{R}$. | |
| Jul 3, 2011 at 21:21 | history | answered | user5810 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |