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Jul 5, 2011 at 17:40 comment added Andrew Parker @Hailong: The rough definition for invertible that I was considering was essentially just local freeness: $M$ where $M \otimes R_P \cong R_P$ for all primes $P$. @Tom Goodville gave an interesting example that fit my 'definition' for a non-finitely generated invertible module, but was not projective. I also see what 'fails' for that example, in that there is no element $r \in R$ such that $rM \subset R$, unlike the finitely generated case.
Jul 5, 2011 at 17:17 vote accept Andrew Parker
Jul 3, 2011 at 21:54 comment added Karl Schwede Georges, yes, I misread the question. Sorry about that.
Jul 3, 2011 at 20:43 answer added YCor timeline score: 10
Jul 3, 2011 at 18:41 comment added Hailong Dao @S\andor: you are right, I meant to say, if $M$ is not f.g. (as the OP wanted), then it is trivially not invertible. So I am not sure what the question asked. Thank you for the correction.
Jul 3, 2011 at 17:32 comment added Sándor Kovács @Hailong: the actual question does not ask $M$ to be invertible, in fact it asks that it is not that, so it seems that that could not force anything. But it does ask that $M$ be of rank $1$ and perhaps this is what you have in mind. So my question is the same as Martin's: @Andrew: How do you define rank?
Jul 3, 2011 at 15:51 comment added Hailong Dao Andrew, what definition of "invertible" you are using? The ones I know would force $M$ to be finitely generated automatically, so the answer is trivially no.
Jul 3, 2011 at 8:23 comment added Georges Elencwajg Dear Karl, I am not able to extract an answer to Andrew's question from your link. Could you please state a precise statement there that answers his question?
Jul 2, 2011 at 19:40 comment added Martin Brandenburg How do you define the rank in this case? Dimension of the residue fields? Of course your alluded generalized Picard group will be no group.
Jul 2, 2011 at 18:47 history asked Andrew Parker CC BY-SA 3.0