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Feb 6, 2012 at 9:01 vote accept Mark Grant
Jun 18, 2011 at 8:12 comment added Mark Grant @SGP: Thanks, I read about dimension shifting soon after posting the question! So the question trivially has a positive answer. If you want to post as an answer I'd be happy to accept it (although Fernando's answer is also an interesting take).
Jun 18, 2011 at 8:05 comment added Mark Grant @SGP: Yes it is.
Jun 17, 2011 at 22:18 comment added SGP Also, if $Q \hookrightarrow M$ is an embedding into an injective $G$-module, then $H^i(G,N) = H^{i+1}(G,Q)$ for all $i > 0$; here $N$ is the quotient $M/Q$; this is called dimension-shifting..see Serre's Local Fields book or any other standard reference.
Jun 17, 2011 at 22:13 comment added SGP If $Q$ has trivial $G$-action, isn't $H^1(G,Q) = Hom(G,Q)$?
Jun 17, 2011 at 13:54 answer added Fernando Muro timeline score: 4
Jun 17, 2011 at 10:37 history asked Mark Grant CC BY-SA 3.0