Timeline for An inequality for a continuous non-smooth function
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 10, 2011 at 11:54 | comment | added | alperden15 | Thank you for your reply. I'll check the website you mentioned, ask any question that I have at that website. | |
| Jun 10, 2011 at 10:48 | answer | added | Charles Matthews | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 10, 2011 at 10:44 | comment | added | Todd Trimble | There are other sites where you can ask this level of question, such as math.stackexchange.com; please read the faq. As it happens, this site is for professional mathematicians, and generally questions at this level will be closed as not being of interest to mathematicians who are doing research. | |
| Jun 10, 2011 at 10:01 | comment | added | alperden15 | Thank you for your reply. I agree with you that this estimate already applies to the norm. I also agree with you about not being able to use a reasoning based on Taylor series. I'm not a mathematician, I'm a mechanical engineer working on control theory. I saw this inequality mentioned as a lemma on a paper which I read, where it was just mentioned that its proof was quite obvious. But I was just wondering how to show it. | |
| Jun 10, 2011 at 9:30 | comment | added | Charles Matthews | Either you are confused, or I am. This estimate already applies to the norm (i.e. n > 1). Also you can't use Taylor series at a point that where a function fails to be differentiable. | |
| Jun 10, 2011 at 9:23 | history | asked | alperden15 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |