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Jun 10, 2011 at 9:42 vote accept Max Flander
Jun 10, 2011 at 8:47 answer added David Loeffler timeline score: 2
Jun 10, 2011 at 7:48 comment added Junkie Hard to parse the notation. To recap: $D_r(X)$ and $\rho_r′$ correspond to taking $I_r$ invariants on $H_1^l(E)$ and then taking the ${\rm Sym}^2$, while the more standard $\rho_r$ first takes ${\rm Sym}$ and then takes $I_r$ invariants. So I think the answer is: when $E$ is additive reduction, then $H^1_l(E)^{I_r}$ is trivial, and so is the symmetric square of it. When $E$ is multiplicative reduction, then $H_1^l(E)^{I_r}$ is a 1-dim subspace, and in fact is the same as with $\rho_r$ if I am not mistaken (it has degree 1, and divides the degree 1 Euler factor with $\rho_r'$, so must be same)
Jun 10, 2011 at 7:04 history asked Max Flander CC BY-SA 3.0