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Jul 9, 2011 at 4:28 answer added Dan Marthaler timeline score: 2
Jun 7, 2011 at 16:00 comment added user15626 Thanks for your reply Zen Harper. I'm afraid I don't quite follow: I don't see how to apply Fubini's theorem since 1/sin(x) is obstructing the way. I would greatly appreciate it if you could elaborate on this detail. Thanks!
Jun 7, 2011 at 0:55 comment added Zen Harper Use Fubini's Theorem to reduce to a single integral, i.e. interchange the order of integration, so you are integrating a function of $\theta$ from $0$ to $\pi/2$. This requires the indefinite integral of $1/ \sin x$. Now you are in the standard realm of the Calculus of Variations; I'll leave you to fill in the integration details...! There is no guarantee that the Euler-Lagrange equations will actually have a closed form solution. But, you could at least solve them numerically, as you asked.
Jun 6, 2011 at 22:11 history asked user15626 CC BY-SA 3.0