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Jun 5, 2011 at 11:08 vote accept Jacob Lurie
Jun 5, 2011 at 4:57 answer added user631 timeline score: 28
Jun 5, 2011 at 4:47 comment added Allen Knutson ...In particular, the first step in that theorem is to work with the group of collineations; Desargues' condition says that this is doubly transitive on the points. Crazy idea: can one build $P^2$ from $P^1$, say as $X^2/S_2$, and reduce your 1-dim question to this known 2-dim result?
Jun 5, 2011 at 2:44 comment added Allen Knutson The question reminds me of the theorem that abstract projective planes satisfying Desargues' "theorem" are of the form $DP^2$ for a division ring $D$, and satisfying Pappus' "theorem" are of the form $FP^2$ for a field $F$. The proofs do rather a lot, in that they need to use incidence geometry to build addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on a set built from the plane. Presumably a couple of the same ideas could be put into play here.
Jun 4, 2011 at 5:03 comment added Jacob Lurie Yes, that is what I should have said.
Jun 4, 2011 at 5:01 history edited Jacob Lurie CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 4, 2011 at 3:33 comment added Daniel Litt Ah, of course that works.
Jun 4, 2011 at 3:19 comment added Tom Goodwillie And the remedy is to redefine $3$-transitive as meaning that the action of $G$ on the set of ordered triples of distinct elements is transitive, i.e. has exactly one orbit.
Jun 4, 2011 at 3:19 comment added Tom Goodwillie Daniel, your silliness can be generalized: $X$ could be empty; and if it is empty or a singleton then $G$ can be arbitrary.
Jun 4, 2011 at 3:01 comment added algori .. and, of course, they do not satisfy condition 2. unless the ring is commutative...
Jun 4, 2011 at 2:50 comment added algori Apart from projectve lines over fields there are projective lines over (not necessarily commutative) division rings, such as the quaternions. These examples are not there if $\#X<\infty$ since all finite division rings are fields, by Wedderburn's theorem.
Jun 4, 2011 at 2:34 comment added Daniel Litt Perhaps I am missing something silly here--isn't the one-element set acted on by the trivial group a counterexample? (Both conditions are vacuous here). Only slightly more seriously, what about the two-element set acted on faithfully by $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$? (1) is vacuous again, and (2) is satisfied... But clearly $X$ is too small in both cases to be a projective space over any field.
Jun 4, 2011 at 2:20 history asked Jacob Lurie CC BY-SA 3.0