Timeline for Is there a good explanation for this fact on pairwise independent variables?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jun 3, 2011 at 5:26 | vote | accept | Ewan Delanoy | ||
Jun 3, 2011 at 3:41 | comment | added | fedja | It isn't hard but a bit boring. I'll assume that the point is 0000 and denote by q the set where Q=1. Take x of measure 1/2. xy,xz,xt are contained in x and have measure 1/4 each. PIE shows that one of their intersections, say xyz, is of measure at least 1/12, so WLOG x has the piece of measure 1/12 or more free of y and z. But y and z together give 3/4 and 3/4+1/12=5/6. | |
Jun 2, 2011 at 21:25 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | In fact, with some linear programming, I managed to find a sharp bound: the most mass that any one point can have is 1/6. If there were a nice proof of this, it would be very interesting! | |
Jun 2, 2011 at 21:11 | history | edited | Did | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 8 characters in body
|
Jun 2, 2011 at 20:37 | history | edited | Did | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 250 characters in body; added 112 characters in body
|
Jun 2, 2011 at 20:29 | history | answered | Did | CC BY-SA 3.0 |