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Jul 28, 2011 at 6:00 comment added Will Chen nevermind. He says maps to the stalk, not "is the stalk". sorry.
Jul 28, 2011 at 5:31 vote accept Will Chen
Jul 28, 2011 at 5:28 comment added Will Chen $\newcommand{\fF}{\mathcal{F}}$ Sorry to come back to this, but after rereading Hartshorne's definition of a morphism of locally ringed spaces, that even though as $V$ ranges over all open nbhd's of $f(P)$, $f^{−1}(V)$ ranges over a subset of the nbhd's of $P$, he still claims that $\lim_V \oO_X(f^{−1}(V)) = \oO_{X,P}$. (In your addendum to your original response, you said in general this limit, which you wrote as $(f_∗\fF)_{f(x)}$ is not ismorphic to $\fF_x$)
Jun 7, 2011 at 17:18 vote accept Will Chen
Jul 28, 2011 at 5:11
Jun 7, 2011 at 17:13 vote accept Will Chen
Jun 7, 2011 at 17:13
Jun 5, 2011 at 20:32 history edited Emerton CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 5, 2011 at 20:24 comment added Emerton Dear oxeimon, Yes, your computations of the stalks in your first comment are correct. As for "the induced map on stalks" remark of Hartshorne, the point is that if $\mathfrak p \mapsto \mathfrak q,$ and if $V$ is a n.h. of $\mathfrak p$, then $f^{-1}(V)$ will be a n.h. of $\mathfrak q$, so there is an induced map on stalks $\mathcal O_{\mathrm{Spec} B,\mathfrak p} \to \mathcal O_{\mathrm{Spec} A,\mathfrak q},$ which is the map Hartshorne is discussing. (See my updated answer for slightly more detail, although it may be superfluous at this point.) Regards, Matthew
Jun 5, 2011 at 1:32 comment added Will Chen so I guess these stalks in general are just the direct limit of localizations, where the maps are just inclusions. (at least for integral domains)
Jun 5, 2011 at 1:24 comment added Will Chen Also, I thought that $(f_*\oO_{\Spec B})_\mf{p} = (\oO_{\Spec B})_\mf{q}$ because of the way he defined the morphism of sheaves $f^\sharp$ and the local homomorphisms $\varphi_\mf{p} : A_{\varphi^{-1}}(\mf{p})\rightarrow B_\mf{p}$. Ie, he said "The induced maps $f^\sharp$ on the stalks are just the local homomorphisms $\varphi_\mf{p}$", but these local homomorphisms are only defined for $\mf{p}\in\Spec B$, whereas they should be defined for all $\mf{q}\in\Spec A$, so it seemed like he was saying that as $\mf{p}$ ranges over $\Spec B$, $f(\mf{p})$ ranges over all of $\Spec A$, which is false..
Jun 5, 2011 at 0:50 comment added Will Chen Alright, so in (1), I guess the direct limit in the definition of the stalk is just the direct limit of a single group, which is just $O_B(B) = k\times k$. And in (2), since the primes of B are just the primes of A except for $(t)$, the direct limit just limits over all nonempty open sets of Spec B, so if we only consider the open sets $D(f)$ for $f\in B$, for which $O_B(D(f)) = B_f$, so it seems like the direct limit (ie the stalk) is just $k(t)$?
Jun 2, 2011 at 17:19 history answered Emerton CC BY-SA 3.0