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Jul 27, 2011 at 12:05 vote accept Sonat Suer
Jul 24, 2011 at 6:12 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 13
Jul 9, 2011 at 15:37 comment added Martin Sleziak As far as your last question is concerned, there is a related thread mathoverflow.net/questions/28997/…
Jul 9, 2011 at 14:52 answer added John Galt timeline score: 0
Jun 2, 2011 at 5:25 history edited Sonat Suer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 1, 2011 at 18:34 comment added Michael Hardy I would think if the limit above actually exists then for an infinite integer $n$, the standard part of the average of $n$ terms would be equal to the limit. If you can get this into a form where you've got $\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k=1}^m$ for infinite integers $n$ and $m$, where the thing being summed is standard (in the sense used in non-standard analysis) then you shouldn't even need Fubini's theorem.
Jun 1, 2011 at 7:47 history edited Sonat Suer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 1, 2011 at 7:38 history asked Sonat Suer CC BY-SA 3.0