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S Sep 26, 2018 at 12:58 history suggested Leo Oliveira CC BY-SA 4.0
Updated dead link to Wikipedia's Leibniz integral rule page
Sep 26, 2018 at 12:33 review Suggested edits
S Sep 26, 2018 at 12:58
Jun 11, 2014 at 11:05 answer added user39115 timeline score: 1
Oct 31, 2013 at 18:55 review Close votes
Oct 31, 2013 at 21:00
Oct 31, 2013 at 6:00 answer added O.R. timeline score: 7
Aug 21, 2013 at 12:44 history edited François G. Dorais
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Aug 21, 2013 at 12:11 history protected François G. Dorais
Aug 21, 2013 at 11:26 answer added Juan I. Perotti timeline score: 2
Oct 2, 2012 at 13:26 answer added Peter Michor timeline score: 15
Jun 19, 2011 at 20:28 vote accept vonjd
Jun 7, 2011 at 18:09 answer added Todd Rowland timeline score: 1
May 31, 2011 at 1:16 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 23
May 30, 2011 at 23:31 comment added Deane Yang Ryan (Reich), thanks for the reply. You're completely right about this, and I rescind my doubts.
May 30, 2011 at 23:30 answer added Deane Yang timeline score: 10
May 30, 2011 at 22:14 answer added gowers timeline score: 116
May 30, 2011 at 21:33 comment added Peter Luthy @Deane A bit tongue in cheek, but: division of real numbers is harder than multiplication because it's secretly still multiplication, just with the additional step of inverting. Multiplication by $x$ is a continuous function, but multiplication by $x^{-1}$ is no longer continuous near zero. But if you look at, say, the circle group, multiplication and division are clearly equally difficult!
May 30, 2011 at 20:20 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 53
May 30, 2011 at 20:18 comment added Ryan Reich @Deane: Power series; works for any function you would otherwise have trouble integrating symbolically. See my comment to Thierry Zell's answer. For fractions: prime factorization, like I said. But no matter how you write things, you give up some convenience (ease of composition/identification of closed form, or ease of addition)
May 30, 2011 at 18:26 comment added Deane Yang I just got around to taking a closer look at Todd Trimble's answer. That (like Tao's) is a really good answer but again feels a little incomplete to me. In the end both his and Tao's answers seem to all come down to the fact that there are algorithmic ways to differentiate a function built out of old ones in standard ways (composition, product, quotient) but there are no analogous algorithms for integrals. This explains why differentiation is "easy", but I'm still not sure whether that explains why integration is "hard". I do like Todd's comparison to squaring and square-rooting.
May 30, 2011 at 18:15 comment added vonjd @Deane: Thank you, I feel the same way: "[...] I think it is a lot more subtle and difficult than people are accounting for. Terry Tao's answer below is pretty good but still feels incomplete to me." - couldn't have said it better.
May 30, 2011 at 18:06 comment added Deane Yang Ryan (Reich), I'm not sure I buy your argument. Do you have a different way to express functions/numbers that changes the situation you describe?
May 30, 2011 at 18:04 comment added Deane Yang I concede that my comments were a bit too testy. Although I think the question is a valid and good one, I think it is a lot more subtle and difficult than people are accounting for. Terry Tao's answer below is pretty good but still feels incomplete to me.
May 30, 2011 at 16:10 comment added Ryan Reich @Deane: For the same reason that integration is harder than differentiation: because of how we express our functions/numbers. Elementary functions are perfectly suited for differentiation because we have a rule for each operation. Likewise, writing numbers in decimal (or any) base is well-suited for multiplication because we have distributivity in both factors. If you want to divide easily, write a number as its prime factorization (though then you can't add).
May 30, 2011 at 14:48 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 85
May 30, 2011 at 11:38 comment added Todd Trimble Not meaning to pile on Deane here, but the question is more, "why is integration art and differentiation science?", rather than, "why is integration harder than differentiation?" The OP's second paragraph says more on this, and I came away thinking that the OP is more interested in the question of whether antidifferentiation algorithms exist or if not, why not.
May 30, 2011 at 9:40 answer added Denis Serre timeline score: 15
May 30, 2011 at 6:52 history edited vonjd CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 30, 2011 at 6:45 history edited vonjd CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 30, 2011 at 6:05 comment added Ryan Budney @Deane, if that's a question you're interested in and think is appropriate for MO I encourage you to start a new thread. As-is, you seem to be derailing the discussion here.
May 30, 2011 at 5:36 answer added Peter Luthy timeline score: 20
May 30, 2011 at 4:47 comment added Deane Yang Ryan, why is division harder than multiplication?
May 30, 2011 at 4:06 comment added Ryan Reich @Deane: Which one is the inverse? It's not surprising to me that one should be harder, but you can still ask why integration in particular.
May 30, 2011 at 3:57 comment added Deane Yang It seems to me that before we discuss differentiation and integraiton, could someone first explain why division is harder than multiplication? (Why should it be surprising that a process is easier to carry out than its inverse?)
May 30, 2011 at 2:02 answer added Thierry Zell timeline score: 5
May 29, 2011 at 23:48 comment added Dan Piponi Although it's usually said that integration is harder than differentiation there are many senses in which the opposite true. As linear operators in functional analysis, integration is often much better behaved than differentiation. When doing exact real arithmetic, integration over an interval is computable but differentiation is not. (Eg. see homepages.inf.ed.ac.uk/als/Research/lazy.ps.gz)
May 29, 2011 at 21:32 comment added Ryan Budney I think you really ought to qualify what you mean by "doable", since Riemann integrals exist in most "standard" axiom systems for mathematics. IMO the primary reason for the apparent "deep" nature of your question is largely due to improper formulation. If you talk about "doable" in terms of some class of elementary functions, then you see what the problem is, as has been mentioned by several people.
May 29, 2011 at 20:58 answer added Ryan Reich timeline score: 5
May 29, 2011 at 20:39 answer added Michael Renardy timeline score: 8
May 29, 2011 at 20:28 comment added Sridhar Ramesh (Note that, for example, the product rule (mentioned in the original question) is just the instance of the chain rule as applied to the particular multivariable function of multiplication)
May 29, 2011 at 20:17 comment added Sridhar Ramesh I think it just amounts to the existence of the chain rule (including in its multivariable forms) for differentiation, which makes differentiation easy; if it wasn't for that, you'd call differentiation an art as well. I.e., we think of "nice" functions as those built up by compositions from some basic stock of primitive functions we understand well; the chain rule allows us to take our knowledge of the derivatives of the primitive functions and easily build up from this knowledge of the derivatives of all other "nice" functions, in this sense. Integration has no such chain rule, so it's hard
May 29, 2011 at 20:07 comment added vonjd @Ryan: That it is easy and doable one way and hard or sometimes not even doable the other way round. I am trying to understand the structural (deep) reason for that asymmetry. When you say isn't clear what are the alternative interpretations or what is missing?
May 29, 2011 at 20:01 comment added Ryan Budney Your question isn't clear. What's this "other" assymmetry you're referring to?
May 29, 2011 at 19:54 comment added vonjd @Qiaochu: I understand that but my question is why this asymmetry is the case (the underlying reason) with differentiation and integration.
May 29, 2011 at 19:43 answer added harecare timeline score: 16
May 29, 2011 at 19:12 comment added The Mathemagician Differentiation is a "linearizing" limit process: it results in an approximation to the original function that is a linear map. Integration does not necessarily result in a linear map from the original function-quite the opposite most of the time. That's my 2 cents on the question.
May 29, 2011 at 17:30 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 146
May 29, 2011 at 17:24 comment added Eric Naslund @Vonjd: A similar question was asked on MSE. This thread may be of interest: math.stackexchange.com/questions/20578/…
May 29, 2011 at 17:00 comment added Qiaochu Yuan The fundamental theorem of calculus tells you that they're inverses. That's not necessarily a symmetry. There are plenty of examples of functions that are easy to compute whose inverses are hard to compute: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-way_function
May 29, 2011 at 16:56 comment added vonjd @Suvrit: Nice one - ROFL :-)
May 29, 2011 at 16:52 comment added C.S. Because differentiation is easier than integration.
May 29, 2011 at 16:49 comment added Suvrit differentiation increases entropy, integration reduces it, so physics answers the asymmetry (just kidding).
May 29, 2011 at 16:44 history asked vonjd CC BY-SA 3.0