Skip to main content
5 events
when toggle format what by license comment
May 26, 2011 at 21:07 answer added Claudio Gorodski timeline score: 4
May 26, 2011 at 9:55 comment added Gunnar Þór Magnússon Oh, yes, and under these conditions $\omega$ will be a holomorphic symplectic form on $(M,T)$ - i.e. a non-degenerate holomorphic 2-form, which then trivializes the canonical bundle of $M$.
May 26, 2011 at 9:53 comment added Gunnar Þór Magnússon This is how it's supposed to work: take a 4-manifold $M$ with the topology of a K3 surface, and a 2-form $\omega$ on $M$. Let $T = \Ker \omega \subset T_M$ be a subspace of the tangent bundle. Then $\omega \wedge \omega = 0$ and $\omega \wedge \overline \omega$ ensure that $T$ defines an almost complex structure on $M$ (i.e. $T$ is the space of $(0,1)$ or $(1,0)$ vectors). Then $d \omega = 0$ is supposed to be equivalent to integrability. -- Like I said, there are details to work out, and I haven't had time to do them yet.
May 26, 2011 at 9:47 comment added Gunnar Þór Magnússon I've been meaning to work out the details of this for some time. It seems to be linked to K3 surfaces - there are semi-vague references to this fact in Buchdahl [springerlink.com/content/h2517445047r421r/] and Huybrechts [math.uni-bonn.de/people/huybrech/HKhabmod.ps]. Sorry I can't do better than that.
May 26, 2011 at 7:22 history asked Matt Fahrad CC BY-SA 3.0