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Aug 5, 2020 at 21:09 comment added LSpice Or, which is essentially the same example, $\left\langle\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\right\rangle$ inside $\operatorname U(2)/\operatorname U(1)$.
Mar 6, 2013 at 0:02 comment added Johannes Hahn Fu... I just "proved" that again as an exercise a few days ago.
May 19, 2011 at 23:26 history answered Claudio Gorodski CC BY-SA 3.0