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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Jun 7, 2014 at 4:59 comment added isomorphismes When I think of ∂ I'm necessarily thinking about the fundamental theorem of calculus: take I=[0,1] then $\int_I D[f] = f \vert_{\partial I}$. So wouldn't ∂² then be evaluating $f$ on ∂(∂(I))=∅, which is a strange enough notion that I'm not sure what one would want to do to make sense of it. My way of thinking about it doesn't yield anything nice like $f''$ resulting from ∂∂I, which may make it a bad idea.
Feb 1, 2010 at 8:02 answer added Don Stanley timeline score: 3
Oct 23, 2009 at 22:31 answer added David Ben-Zvi timeline score: 5
Oct 17, 2009 at 19:35 vote accept Kevin H. Lin
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:53 answer added Steven Sam timeline score: 5
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:38 history edited Kevin H. Lin CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 15, 2009 at 21:22 answer added Justin DeVries timeline score: 5
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:17 answer added Harrison Brown timeline score: 4
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:01 comment added Eric Wofsey As a more direct explanation of what d^2=0 has to do with \epsilon^2=0, in de Rham cohomology d^2=0 amounts to the fact that partial derivatives commute with each other. If you write this down in terms of infinitesimals it ought to involve some \epsilon^2=0 somewhere.
Oct 15, 2009 at 20:36 history asked Kevin H. Lin CC BY-SA 2.5