Timeline for Homological algebra and calculus (as in Newton)
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
12 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
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Jun 7, 2014 at 4:59 | comment | added | isomorphismes | When I think of ∂ I'm necessarily thinking about the fundamental theorem of calculus: take I=[0,1] then $\int_I D[f] = f \vert_{\partial I}$. So wouldn't ∂² then be evaluating $f$ on ∂(∂(I))=∅, which is a strange enough notion that I'm not sure what one would want to do to make sense of it. My way of thinking about it doesn't yield anything nice like $f''$ resulting from ∂∂I, which may make it a bad idea. | |
Feb 1, 2010 at 8:02 | answer | added | Don Stanley | timeline score: 3 | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 22:31 | answer | added | David Ben-Zvi | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 17, 2009 at 19:35 | vote | accept | Kevin H. Lin | ||
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:53 | answer | added | Steven Sam | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:38 | history | edited | Kevin H. Lin | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
added 112 characters in body
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Oct 15, 2009 at 21:22 | answer | added | Justin DeVries | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:17 | answer | added | Harrison Brown | timeline score: 4 | |
Oct 15, 2009 at 21:01 | comment | added | Eric Wofsey | As a more direct explanation of what d^2=0 has to do with \epsilon^2=0, in de Rham cohomology d^2=0 amounts to the fact that partial derivatives commute with each other. If you write this down in terms of infinitesimals it ought to involve some \epsilon^2=0 somewhere. | |
Oct 15, 2009 at 20:36 | history | asked | Kevin H. Lin | CC BY-SA 2.5 |