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May 11, 2011 at 7:25 comment added user91132 It's not clear to me why $R$ will be its own enveloping algebra. Certainly there's a map $u(R) \to R$ by the universal property but it isn't an injection in general. For example if $\dim R < \infty$ then $\dim u(R) = p^{\dim R}$ so this map is never an injection in this case, and I see no reason for it to be injective in the infinite dimensional case either. And then why must $u(R)$ be a domain?
May 10, 2011 at 20:02 comment added John Palmieri I've edited the original question to add something like Bugs Bunny's question, among other things. Note also that in the graded case, it is even clearer that $\mathfrak{g}$ must be infinite-dimensional, if $u(\mathfrak{g})$ is a domain. Finally, if $R$ is a $k$-algebra, where $k$ has characteristic $p$, then if you view $R$ as a restricted Lie algebra, it will be its own enveloping algebra, and you can get lots of examples this way, just by choosing $R$ to be a domain.
May 10, 2011 at 17:43 history edited user91132 CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 10, 2011 at 12:24 comment added Bugs Bunny Still no answer to the question!! Say $\gamma (x)=0$ implies $x=0$ and $g$ contains no non-trivial finite dimensional restricted subalgebras. Does it imply that $u(g)$ is a domain?
May 10, 2011 at 12:20 comment added Bugs Bunny An alternative proof is that $u(g)$ is a Hopf algebra, so it has a distinguished idempotent, called integral.
May 10, 2011 at 11:02 history answered user91132 CC BY-SA 3.0