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May 8, 2011 at 4:14 comment added Joël Cohen Actually, f′(x) does not make much sense since $f(x) \in \mathbb{C}$ and $x \in \mathbb{Q}_p$.
May 8, 2011 at 3:26 comment added user709 So if differentiable means that $f'(x)$ exists, does it imply that infinitely differentiable = locally constant?
May 8, 2011 at 0:54 history answered Alexander Braverman CC BY-SA 3.0