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May 4, 2011 at 20:03 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 19:54 comment added darij grinberg Ah, that thing. Now I feel stupid for not remembering it from topology lectures :)
May 4, 2011 at 19:52 comment added DamienC There is not that much analysis! The point is that iterated integrals are simply integrals over simplices (of products of pull-back of linear forms). Now if you want to express an integral over the cartesian product of two simplices in term of linear combinations of integrals over simplices, then you'll see that shuffles appear very naturally :-)
May 4, 2011 at 19:43 comment added darij grinberg I will look into the loop integrals tomorrow. I need to be in good shape to understand analysis...
May 4, 2011 at 19:43 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 19:42 comment added darij grinberg That recursive formula is actually my argument - one still must show that everything cancels out nicely.
May 4, 2011 at 19:35 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 19:31 comment added DamienC the formula for $S$ is equivalentto the following recursive one. For $x\in ker(\epsilon)$ one has $$ S(x)=-x-S(x')\star x'' $$ where $x'\otimes x''$ is the Sweedler notation for the reduced coproduct. Then you can prove by induction that it gives your easier formula. But I think that the loop interpretation is nicer (one does not need to compute a lot).
May 4, 2011 at 19:21 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 19:21 comment added darij grinberg It is not that clear to me how your formula for $S$ implies my part 2. But thanks for reminding me of the Manchon paper at a moment when I am actually near to a good printer!
May 4, 2011 at 18:45 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 18:19 history edited DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2011 at 17:55 history answered DamienC CC BY-SA 3.0