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Timeline for Checkmate in $\omega$ moves?

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Jan 31 at 19:43 comment added Akiva Weinberger This has now been made into a video: youtu.be/b-Bb_TyhC1A
Jan 30 at 20:29 comment added Steven Stadnicki This will (hopefully!) get buried in the much more directly pertinent comments, but I just wanted to add a tiny note that I really like the gender edits here.
Jan 30 at 19:51 history edited Johan Wästlund CC BY-SA 4.0
added 6 characters in body
Jan 30 at 19:42 history edited Johan Wästlund CC BY-SA 4.0
added 6 characters in body
Jul 2, 2023 at 15:25 answer added Andreas Tsevas timeline score: 12
Jun 18, 2023 at 20:52 comment added Wlod AA What's the def. of the infinite chess board $\mathbb Z^2$ game?!
Feb 5, 2023 at 2:45 answer added Matthew Bolan timeline score: 21
May 6, 2018 at 0:03 history edited Joel David Hamkins
edited tags
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Nov 9, 2015 at 3:10 comment added Toby Bartels I'm claiming that it's an easy mistake to make, and I could understand the motivation of somebody who wanted to adopt this reversal deliberately (although in that case of course they should say so). As I said, the standard convention has good reasons, and I also would stick to it, but I can understand why somebody would switch them.
Oct 13, 2015 at 22:13 comment added Joel David Hamkins @TobyBartels Are you excusing the notation of $2\omega$ for $\omega+\omega$? Although it may seem natural, and beginners with ordinals often want to do that, nevertheless there is a well-established notation here going back more than a century, by which $2\omega=\omega$ and $\omega\cdot 2=\omega+\omega$, and I find no sound reason not to use the established norms. Many of the posts on this thread, it seems to me, are using incorrect ordinal notation.
Feb 16, 2014 at 18:22 answer added Itai Bar-Natan timeline score: 6
Feb 19, 2013 at 7:52 comment added Toby Bartels $2x$ in ordinary algebra is read aloud as ‘$2$ times $x$’, or equivalently twice $x$, meaning literally $x + x$. The reasons for writing ordinal multiplication the other way are good reasons, but it is still backwards from the usual convention, so it's quite natural to (accidentally or on purpose) write $2\omega$ for $\omega + \omega$.
Feb 19, 2013 at 1:52 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 52
Jan 5, 2012 at 10:49 answer added Philip Engel timeline score: 6
May 4, 2011 at 12:57 comment added Gerald Edgar It is interesting that you write $2\omega+3$ and not $\omega 2 + 3$.
May 3, 2011 at 20:32 comment added Noam D. Elkies Well I don't have $\omega^2$ yet. Doing that with the new family of mates-in-$N\omega$ would require a setup where Black can start by pulling the White Knight arbitrarily many moves away from the Black King.
May 3, 2011 at 19:49 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 31
May 3, 2011 at 19:14 comment added Johan Wästlund $\omega^2$, wow! I'm looking forward to teaching ordinal arithmetic to the guys at the chess club!
May 3, 2011 at 18:39 comment added Noam D. Elkies I can now get $N\omega$ on ${\bf Z}^2$ using only $O(1)$ pieces. Details coming below. So $\omega^2$ might be possible.
May 3, 2011 at 14:53 comment added Junkie It seems to me that the current state of knowing sits: $N\omega$ is possible on ${1\over 4},{1\over 2}$-$\infty$ boards (Elkies), and $\omega$ is possible on the original all-infinite board ($Z^2$). But the $N\omega$ constructions start using $N$ pieces, and one suspicion is that $\omega^2$ is already not possible with finitely many pieces?
May 3, 2011 at 3:25 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 10
May 1, 2011 at 21:49 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 48
May 1, 2011 at 20:57 answer added Junkie timeline score: 13
May 1, 2011 at 17:10 vote accept Johan Wästlund
May 1, 2011 at 17:10 vote accept Johan Wästlund
May 1, 2011 at 17:10
Apr 30, 2011 at 11:33 answer added Junkie timeline score: 62
Apr 30, 2011 at 7:10 answer added Jose Capco timeline score: 0
Apr 29, 2011 at 18:36 answer added Andreas Blass timeline score: 12
Apr 29, 2011 at 18:34 history edited Qiaochu Yuan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 29, 2011 at 18:09 answer added Richard Borcherds timeline score: 3
Apr 29, 2011 at 17:54 comment added Henry Towsner If $\gamma$ could be large, this would lead to the possibility of positions where proving that White could force a mate had high consistency strength. I'd love to see that problem in the newspaper chess column: "Show that White can mate, using the existence of a measurable cardinal..."
Apr 29, 2011 at 15:13 history asked Johan Wästlund CC BY-SA 3.0