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Apr 28, 2011 at 1:57 comment added Alex Gavrilov Joel, there is a gap. Applying the lemma, we may get $\phi$ provably equivalent to $\psi$. In this case $\phi\vee\psi$ is equivalent to $Con(PA)$. Then, the lenghts of nonstandard proofs are nonstandard numbers, which may be incompatible. So, we need another argument to show that $\phi\vee\psi$ can be proved.
Apr 27, 2011 at 15:30 comment added none OK, I don't know Smullyan's double recursion theorem, but Joel's answer is certainly more likely than mine to be right.
Apr 27, 2011 at 14:54 comment added none Hmm, well, if you've got another answer please feel free to post it; I think this should be an easy problem but I keep getting stuck with my proof. Or I might try again later in the day.
Apr 27, 2011 at 14:30 comment added Carl Mummert Yes, I did miss that. I have deleted my answer, which didn't consider the syntactic classes of the formulas.
Apr 27, 2011 at 14:00 history edited none CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 27, 2011 at 13:18 history answered none CC BY-SA 3.0