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Jun 2, 2023 at 16:31 comment added Santiago Radi Sorry, but I still do not see why such a sequence would exist.
Jun 2, 2023 at 5:16 comment added Ian Agol @SantiagoRadi: it's a standard diagonalization/compactness argument. Each generating set of $H_j, j>i$ will map to a generating set of $H_i$. We may therefore choose a generating set of $H_i$ which is hit by infinitely many generating sets of $H_j, j>i$. I guess that the existence of the sequence $H_i$ needs an assumption that $G$ is second countable.
Jun 2, 2023 at 3:53 comment added Santiago Radi Once you chose $g(H_i)$ and $j > i$, how do you define $g(H_j)$ to make sure that $g(H_j) \mapsto g(H_i)$?
Apr 27, 2011 at 14:34 history edited Ian Agol CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 27, 2011 at 6:01 history answered Ian Agol CC BY-SA 3.0