Is every holomorphic line bundle on the - say - punctured unit disc $\dot{\Delta} \subseteq \mathbf{C}$ trivial? Griffiths-Harris (p. 39) prove that $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\Delta) = 0$ (for $q \geq 1$), and mention that by replacing discs by annuli that one could prove also $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\dot{\Delta}^k \times \Delta^\ell) = 0$. They seem to imply that in particular $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\dot{\Delta}) = 0$. If this were true, using Dolbeault's theorem and the Kummer sequence one could conclude $H^1(\dot{\Delta},\mathcal{O}_{\dot{\Delta}}) = 0$, hence that every holomorphic line bundle on $\dot{\Delta}$ is trivial.

Is every holomorphic line bundle on the - say - punctured unit disc $\dot{\Delta} \subseteq \mathbf{C}$ trivial? Griffiths-Harris (p. 39) prove that $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\Delta) = 0$ (for $q \geq 1$), and mention that by replacing discs by annuli that one could prove also $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\dot{\Delta}^k \times \Delta^\ell) = 0$. They seem to imply that in particular $H^{p,q}_{\overline{\partial}}(\dot{\Delta}) = 0$. If this were true, using Dolbeault's theorem and the Kummer sequence one could conclude $H^1(\dot{\Delta},\mathcal{O}^\times_{\dot{\Delta}}) = 0$, hence that every holomorphic line bundle on $\dot{\Delta}$ is trivial.