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Apr 20, 2011 at 8:09 vote accept Jerry
Apr 19, 2011 at 18:24 answer added BSteinhurst timeline score: 6
Apr 19, 2011 at 12:59 comment added George Lowther Yes. But I don't understand the problem. The restriction of $\phi$ to each of a countable collection of sets, whose union is the whole space, is measurable. So $\phi$ is measurable.
Apr 19, 2011 at 10:47 history asked Jerry CC BY-SA 3.0