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Apr 18, 2011 at 19:16 comment added Pete L. Clark @Henry and Felipe: I think the two of you are quibbling over the definition of "undecidable". As the comments above attest, there is a sense in which each of you is correct.
Apr 18, 2011 at 18:50 comment added Felipe Voloch @Henry. Whether or not there exists a set whose cardinality is strictly between the cardinality of the natural numbers and the cardinality of the real numbers is also a yes-or-no question.
Apr 18, 2011 at 18:07 comment added Henry Towsner How could P vs NP be undecidable? It's a yes-or-no question.
Apr 18, 2011 at 17:22 comment added Felipe Voloch However, there are undecidable diophantine equations (by the solution of Hilbert's 10th problem) and, in principle, some of the millenium problems (RH, for instance) could be equivalent to such an equation. Also, P vs NP could well be undecidable.
Apr 18, 2011 at 17:08 comment added Henry Cohn To be fair, he said "decidable in the sense of Gödel", and Gödel referred to "formally undecidable propositions" (or rather "formal unentscheidbare Sätze") in the very title of his paper. This terminology has definitely become less standard since then, but it is still relatively common in informal usage.
Apr 18, 2011 at 16:55 comment added Harry Gindi I imagine that the questioner should have used the correct terminology then.
Apr 18, 2011 at 16:25 comment added Henry Cohn I imagine the question meant whether they are independent of ZFC.
Apr 18, 2011 at 16:12 history answered Henry Towsner CC BY-SA 3.0