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Aug 2, 2011 at 3:40 comment added Chandan Singh Dalawat Does this explains why ${\rm GL}_n({\bf F}_1)={\mathfrak S}_n$ !?
Apr 18, 2011 at 17:21 history edited Did CC BY-SA 3.0
Replaced "matrices" in the first sentence by "entries"
Apr 18, 2011 at 15:44 comment added Chris Schommer-Pries Thanks David. This proof is both elegant and simple. I couldn't have hoped for a more pleasing answer.
Apr 18, 2011 at 15:40 vote accept Chris Schommer-Pries
Apr 18, 2011 at 14:25 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0