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May 19, 2016 at 15:53 comment added goblin GONE In other words: if $I$ stabilizes $M$, then some $i \in I$ stabilizes every $m \in M.$ Very nice.
Apr 13, 2011 at 10:47 comment added user91132 You're welcome. Glad to be of help.
Apr 13, 2011 at 9:18 comment added Georges Elencwajg Ah yes, Konstantin, you are right. Like many algebraic geometers I tend to say and write "ring" when I mean "commutative ring". I have now edited my answer in order to prevent any misunderstanding.Thanks for your attention and apologies for my sloppiness.
Apr 13, 2011 at 8:58 history edited Georges Elencwajg CC BY-SA 3.0
added "commutative" to ring
Apr 13, 2011 at 8:22 comment added user91132 You need to assume that your "arbitrary ring" $A$ is commutative. For a non-commutative counterexample, take $A$ to be any domain with a proper non-zero idempotent ideal $I$ and set $M = I$. Then $M = I = I^2 = IM$ since $I$ is idempotent so if your result were true we would get an element $i \in I$ such that $(1-i)I = 0$; since $I \neq 0$ and $A$ is a domain this forces $1 = i \in I$, contradicting the properness of $I$. For a concrete example, let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a perfect Lie algebra and let $I = \mathfrak{g}A$ be the augmentation ideal of its enveloping algebra $A = U(\mathfrak{g})$.
Apr 12, 2011 at 22:56 comment added aglearner Very nice mnemonic! And also thanks for sharing the story about Rene Tom.
Apr 12, 2011 at 21:46 history answered Georges Elencwajg CC BY-SA 3.0