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Apr 25, 2017 at 2:46 history edited user13113 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 25, 2016 at 21:09 comment added Fallen Apart I do not understand why map $\Omega_k(A)\to\Omega^1(M)$ is surjective. Can you have a look at this MO.SE question? mathoverflow.net/questions/255601/…
S Aug 30, 2016 at 12:57 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 30, 2016 at 12:45 review Suggested edits
S Aug 30, 2016 at 12:57
Apr 22, 2016 at 18:00 comment added Denis Nardin I'll mention that it is true that $\Omega^1(M)$ is the double dual of $\Omega_k(A)$. It follows from proposition 4.7 (vector fields are derivations on $C^\infty(M)$) and exercise 11-7 (tensor fields are $C^\infty(M)$-linear functions on $T(M)$) in Lee's smooth manifolds.
Apr 22, 2016 at 17:53 comment added Tyler Lawson @Georges I understand that you may have strong feelings about the n-cafe, and you are entitled to them. However, I'm not sure that your comment addresses the issue. The mathematical content of Saal's question is whether the map $\Omega_k(A) \to \Omega^1(M)$ can be identified with the map $\Omega_k(A) \to \Omega_k(A)^{**}$, where $N^* = Hom_A(N,A)$ is the $A$-linear dual. This is not addressed by David Speyer's answer because perhaps every $A$-linear map $\Omega_k(A) \to A$ annihilates $d\sin(x) - \cos(x)dx$, by contrast with his construction $\Omega_k(A) \to K$ using an ultrafilter.
Jan 2, 2016 at 9:09 comment added Georges Elencwajg @Saal No, it is not right. My experience with n-cafe is that whenever I look up a subject I find clear and elementary they will describe it in such abstract terms that I don't understand what they are talking about. Also, I've never seen them do any non-trivial calculations. But maybe they have done some: I no longer check their site which I find useless for me. But this is very personal. I guess some other mathematicians are enthusiastic about that site: more power to them.
Jan 2, 2016 at 8:44 comment added Saal Hardali If I understood correctly the thread at $n$-cafe basically concludes with the ordinary de rham differentials being the double dual of kahler differentials. Is that right?
Nov 20, 2009 at 19:19 vote accept Abtan Massini
Nov 20, 2009 at 19:10 vote accept Abtan Massini
Nov 20, 2009 at 19:19
Nov 19, 2009 at 20:40 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Georges is quite correct in that it is not trye that $d\mathrm{sin}=\mathrm{cos}dx$ in the module of Kähler differentials for $A$.
Nov 19, 2009 at 20:36 comment added Georges Elencwajg Dear John, this is entirely possible. The definition I use is the same as in Weibel's book on Homological Algebra (8.8.1.),Qing Liu's (6.1.1.)and Hartshorne's (II,8) on Algebraic Geometry, Matsumura's on Commutative Ring Theory (9.25),Bourbaki's Algebra ( III,$10,11) and actually in all the books on the subject that I know of. What other definition of Kähler differentials do you have in mind? Greetings,
Nov 19, 2009 at 19:49 comment added John McCarthy I think your definition of Kahler differentials differs from that in the other two entries.
Nov 19, 2009 at 17:24 history answered Georges Elencwajg CC BY-SA 2.5