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S Mar 9, 2019 at 23:40 history suggested Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
broken image fixed (click 'rendered output' or 'side-by-side' to see the difference; image retrieved via Wayback Machine); for more info, see https://meta.mathoverflow.net/a/4058/70594
Mar 9, 2019 at 22:11 review Suggested edits
S Mar 9, 2019 at 23:40
Mar 10, 2017 at 9:42 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://cims.nyu.edu/ with https://cims.nyu.edu/
Sep 6, 2013 at 21:12 comment added user39646 Sheldon Ross suggests that for Poisson random variables $X$ and $Y$ with parameters $\lambda$ and $\mu$ respectively, $P(X < Y) = \lambda/(\lambda + \mu)$, which is the same for the probability of two Exponential random variables with the same respective intensity parameters. Not sure how he justifies it, although for a Poisson PROCESS, it makes sense. Any thoughts on why this may be?
Jun 1, 2011 at 18:38 answer added Adrien Hardy timeline score: 2
Apr 9, 2011 at 11:57 answer added Suvrit timeline score: 3
Apr 9, 2011 at 5:50 answer added Ori Gurel-Gurevich timeline score: 6
Apr 9, 2011 at 3:51 answer added Michael Lugo timeline score: 3
Apr 9, 2011 at 1:44 history asked Tom LaGatta CC BY-SA 3.0