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Apr 9, 2011 at 19:09 comment added Paul @BS, Yes, the assertion is that $P(w_2)=p_1$ mod 4. $P(w_2)=w_2^2$ mod 2 is a property of the Pontriyagin square, and when $H^2(M;Z)$ has no 2-torsion, $w_2$ lifts to a $Z$ class, answering Manuel's question.
Apr 8, 2011 at 19:59 comment added Tim Perutz A reference is Dold and Whitney's 1959 Annals paper on bundles over 4-dimensional complexes (perhaps someone can consult this paper and post the explanation?).
Apr 8, 2011 at 10:41 comment added BS. See also this MO question and answsers mathoverflow.net/questions/59593/…
Apr 8, 2011 at 10:40 comment added BS. I think the square is the Pontryagin square. See eom.springer.de/p/p073810.htm
Apr 8, 2011 at 10:24 history asked Manuel CC BY-SA 3.0