Return to Question

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

EDIT: the answer is NO (see Richard Kent's answer). I'm just seeking for a "practical" example to visualize how this phoenomenon can happen.

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

EDIT: the answer is NO (see Autumn Kent's answer). I'm just seeking for a "practical" example to visualize how this phoenomenon can happen.

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

EDIT: the answer is NO (see Richard Kent's answer). I'm just seeking a "practical" example to visualize how this phoenomenon can happen.

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

EDIT: the answer is NO (see Richard Kent's answer). I'm just seeking for a "practical" example to visualize how this phoenomenon can happen.

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

Given a fiber bundle $S\hookrightarrow M \rightarrow S^1$ with $M$ (suppose compact closed connected and oriented) 3-manifold and $S$ a compact connected surface, it follows form the exact homotopy sequence that $\pi_1(S)\hookrightarrow \pi_1(M)$. Does this imply that the "fiber" of a 3-manifold which fibers over $S^1$ is well defined?

The answer should be NO, so I am asking: are there simple examples of 3-manifolds which are the total space of two fiber bundles over $S^1$ with fibers two non homeomorphic surfaces?

EDIT: the answer is NO (see Richard Kent's answer). I'm just seeking a "practical" example to visualize how this phoenomenon can happen.