Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Dec 12, 2013 at 23:17 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 3.0
z(x, z) -> z(x, y)
Dec 12, 2013 at 23:17 comment added LSpice @TobyBartels, I remember an analyst colleague talking about a problem in a paper of his that he resolved by noticing (if I remember the particular example correctly) that $\partial/\partial r$ means something different in cylindrical and spherical co\"ordinates.
Apr 10, 2011 at 20:22 history edited user11235 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 231 characters in body
Apr 10, 2011 at 20:04 history edited user11235 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 8 characters in body
Apr 10, 2011 at 19:15 history edited user11235 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 469 characters in body; added 2 characters in body
Apr 10, 2011 at 18:27 comment added darij grinberg Can you help us understand it? Or is there no better way than computation?
Apr 10, 2011 at 11:05 comment added user11235 But this notation does not help one to understand that the above expression is actually $-1$.
Apr 7, 2011 at 12:56 comment added Toby Bartels This is an example of the principle that naïve reasoning with Leibniz notation works fine for total derivatives but not for partial derivatives. This is one reason why I would always write the left-hand side as $\frac{\partial{y}}{\partial{x}} \cdot \frac{\partial{z}}{\partial{y}} \cdot \frac{\partial{x}}{\partial{z}}$ if not $\left(\frac{\partial{y}}{\partial{x}}\right)_z \cdot \left(\frac{\partial{z}}{\partial{y}}\right)_x \cdot \left(\frac{\partial{x}}{\partial{z}}\right)_y$ (notation that I learnt from statistical physics, where the independent variables are otherwise not clear).
Apr 7, 2011 at 12:45 history answered user11235 CC BY-SA 2.5