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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Apr 7, 2011 at 8:14 vote accept Aaron Meyerowitz
Apr 7, 2011 at 8:10 history edited Aaron Meyerowitz CC BY-SA 2.5
added 3759 characters in body; edited title; added 1 characters in body
Apr 6, 2011 at 17:51 comment added Seva @Aaron: there is a typo in the title of the question. @Everybody else: if you like the present question, you may wish to check the question it originated from (mathoverflow.net/questions/60604) and consider voting to re-open it.
Apr 6, 2011 at 13:38 history edited Gerry Myerson
added arXiv tag
Apr 6, 2011 at 7:38 answer added Denis Serre timeline score: 3
Apr 6, 2011 at 7:32 answer added Seva timeline score: 4
Apr 6, 2011 at 7:08 comment added Gerhard Paseman If n=2, I imagine that the subspace (t, -t) gives the minimum value. For n > 2, and d=1, the subspace (t, -t, 0, ...,0) sets the limbo bar pretty low. For arbitrary d, looking at n = d+1 might help with determining the minimum, and will be something like the subspace orthogonal to (1,1,...,1) (d+1) ones, which you can generalize. This is not a proof so much as a goal. Gerhard "How Low Can You Go" Paseman, 2011.04.06
Apr 6, 2011 at 7:01 comment added Aaron Meyerowitz Yes, that was my intention.
Apr 6, 2011 at 6:58 comment added Denis Serre I presume that the norm is the standard Euclidian and the projection is orthogonal.
Apr 6, 2011 at 6:51 history asked Aaron Meyerowitz CC BY-SA 2.5