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Apr 5, 2011 at 11:43 history edited Chuck CC BY-SA 2.5
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Apr 5, 2011 at 9:59 vote accept Beni Bogosel
Apr 5, 2011 at 9:59
Apr 5, 2011 at 2:59 comment added GH from MO Clearly you cannot prove FTA without any analysis, because $\mathbb{R}$ is an analytic object (a completion of $\mathbb{Q}$).
Apr 5, 2011 at 2:24 history answered Chuck CC BY-SA 2.5