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Oct 6, 2020 at 18:21 comment added Matthias Wendt This argument is also given as exercise in Hatcher's "More exercises in algebraic topology".
Oct 4, 2020 at 14:39 history edited Henno Brandsma CC BY-SA 4.0
Added proof from link to get more standalone post.
Apr 5, 2011 at 5:42 comment added Anton Geraschenko @Martin: The homeomorphism $(X\times X)\times (X\times X)\cong \mathbb R^3 \times \mathbb R^3$ respects projections by construction, so swapping the "two factors" (which I've emphasized with parentheses) on the left hand side corresponds to swapping the two factors on the right hand side.
Apr 4, 2011 at 15:05 comment added Martin Brandenburg I don't understand this step in the proof: Why does the map $X^4 \to X^4, (a,b,c,d) \mapsto (c,d,a,b)$ correspond to the map $R^6 \to R^6, (p,q,r,s,t,u) \mapsto (s,t,u,p,q,r)$? I mean, the homeomorphism is not supposed to commute with projections ...
Apr 4, 2011 at 5:16 comment added Yaakov Baruch Quoting from the link: "The paper also refers to an earlier paper ("The cartesian product of a certain nonmanifold and a line is E4", R.H. Bing, Annals of Mathematics series 2 vol 70 1959 pp. 399–412) which constructs an extremely pathological space B, called the "dogbone space", not even a manifold, which nevertheless has B × R^3 = R4." This is relevant to my comment to the OP.
Apr 4, 2011 at 2:24 comment added Richard Dore I hope no one misses this nice alternative proof because it's behind a link.
Apr 2, 2011 at 21:25 history answered Henno Brandsma CC BY-SA 2.5