Timeline for Rational map to a non-uniruled manifold
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 31, 2011 at 17:08 | answer | added | Arnav Tripathy | timeline score: 5 | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 15:52 | comment | added | user5117 | @Sandor: Right, that's what I meant (but expressed badly). In his answer he clarifies that this is indeed what is meant. | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 14:49 | comment | added | Sándor Kovács | @Francesco: ivor probably means that there exists an open set $V\subset Y$ such that $f$ is regular (i.e., defined) on $f^{-1}(V)$. | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 13:06 | history | edited | user5117 |
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| Mar 31, 2011 at 13:03 | comment | added | user5117 | Dear Francesco, I think the point of the question (which was not immediately clear to me) is that f should have some proper fibres. | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 12:58 | answer | added | ivor | timeline score: 2 | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 12:50 | comment | added | Francesco Polizzi | If $f\colon X \to Y$ is dominant, then there are always non-empty, open subsets $U \subset X$ and $V \subset Y$ such that the restriction $f \colon U \to V$ is a regular map. Why are you requiring $Y$ non-uniruled? | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 12:04 | comment | added | user5117 | Dear Ivor: it might be useful to give some motivation for the question. For instance, do you have a reason to think it is true? | |
| Mar 31, 2011 at 9:00 | history | asked | ivor | CC BY-SA 2.5 |