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S Sep 27, 2014 at 17:18 history suggested Wolfgang CC BY-SA 3.0
updated broken link
Sep 27, 2014 at 16:45 review Suggested edits
S Sep 27, 2014 at 17:18
Sep 21, 2011 at 8:30 answer added Seva timeline score: 2
Apr 7, 2011 at 13:41 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 2.5
added 1 characters in body
Apr 1, 2011 at 6:01 answer added Ryan O'Donnell timeline score: 3
Apr 1, 2011 at 5:43 history edited Kevin O'Bryant CC BY-SA 2.5
Added link to Vinuesa/Matolcsi paper
Mar 31, 2011 at 17:19 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 12
Mar 31, 2011 at 12:42 comment added Kevin O'Bryant Mark, it's the spike at 0 that leads me to believe that the extremal functions are not symmetric.
Mar 31, 2011 at 12:40 history edited Kevin O'Bryant CC BY-SA 2.5
added examples and umlauts; added 12 characters in body
Mar 31, 2011 at 3:47 comment added Mark Lewko Kevin, Is that troubling for any reason (other than that I'm trying to solve a different problem than the one you asked)? It seems that $||f*f||_{\infty}$ isn't any bigger at 0 (under my new definition of convolution than the old one) for symmetric functions which I expect to include the extremals.
Mar 31, 2011 at 3:28 comment added Kevin O'Bryant @Mark: with your redefinition we end up with $\|f\ast f\|_\infty$ being enormous at $x=0$.
Mar 31, 2011 at 1:21 comment added Mark Lewko It seems that redefining convolution as $\int f(x)f(c+x)dx$ could make the problem easier since we'd then have (trivially) that $||f*f||_{\infty} \geq ||f||_{2}^2$ and so $||f*f||_{\infty}$ is non-increasing when moving to the rearrangement.
Mar 30, 2011 at 23:04 comment added Mark Lewko It would be nice to prove that the quantity does not increase if we replace $f$ by its decreasing rearrangement (then you could hope to show that the extremals are Gaussian via a tensorization argument). I think the denominator will not decrease by Riesz's rearrangement theorem and $||f*f||_{1} = ||f||_{1}^2$ so this term will not increase. However, I'm not sure about $||f*f||_{\infty}$ term.
Mar 30, 2011 at 22:27 comment added Willie Wong I was going to mention Sidon sets, but realized that this question is probably motivated by something similar to it. :)
Mar 30, 2011 at 22:06 history edited Kevin O'Bryant CC BY-SA 2.5
edited body
Mar 30, 2011 at 21:54 comment added Piero D'Ancona You might add gaussians as another example, with a slight better ratio ($\sqrt{2}$(
Mar 30, 2011 at 21:22 history edited Kevin O'Bryant CC BY-SA 2.5
added example and definition of $\ast$
Mar 30, 2011 at 20:44 comment added Suvrit sorry, am not that familiar with the notation. what happens when $f$ is the constant function?
Mar 30, 2011 at 20:28 comment added Kevin O'Bryant If $f$ is the indicator function of an interval of length $I$, then $\|f \ast f\|_\infty = I$, $\|f\ast f\|_1 = I^2$ and $\|f \ast f\|_2^2 = 2/3 I^3$. The ratio in question, then, is always 3/2, independent of the length of the interval
Mar 30, 2011 at 19:15 comment added Helge What happens for intervals? I ask this, because I expect the answer to be obtainable by an easy computation. In particular the limit "interval length to 0" should be relevant.
Mar 30, 2011 at 16:55 history asked Kevin O'Bryant CC BY-SA 2.5