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Mar 30, 2011 at 23:24 history edited Donu Arapura CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 30, 2011 at 15:12 vote accept Greg Graviton
Mar 29, 2011 at 20:17 comment added Greg Graviton Thank you, David, I have done as you suggested.
Mar 29, 2011 at 19:34 comment added David E Speyer I'd be curious to see a direct proof of this, which doesn't go through the construction of $H^k(X, \mathbb{Z})$. Why don't you ask this as a separate question over on math.stackexchange.com ? (It will get closed here, because people here will have no problem assuming that integral cohomology exists.)
Mar 29, 2011 at 19:33 comment added David E Speyer If you only know deRham cohomology, then you don't know what $H^k(X, \mathbb{Z})$ means! OK, that's a bit unfair. It looks like in practice, you are interested in the subspace of $\omega$ in $H^k(X, \mathbb{R})$ such that, for every $k$-cycle $\sigma$, we have $\int_{\sigma} \omega \in \mathbb{Z}$. This is the image of $H^k(X, \mathbb{Z})$ in $H^k(X, \mathbb{R})$. So it sounds like what you want to know is why wedge product preserves this property of differential forms.
Mar 29, 2011 at 16:44 comment added Greg Graviton What seems more interesting is the integrality property. Assuming I only know de-Rham cohomology, could you elaborate on how I can detect whether a differential form from $H^k(M,\mathbb{C})$ is already a member of $H^k(M,\mathbb{Z})$? Is there a short reason why the wedge (cup) product of two integral forms is again integral?
Mar 29, 2011 at 16:44 comment added Greg Graviton D'oh! I mixed up the nomenclature. $F \wedge F$ would be the second Chern character class according to "From Calculus to Cohomology". I'm not familiar with classifying spaces (why is there a map $f : M \to \mathbb{CP}^N$ for any manifold $M$), but I don't care much about that.
Mar 29, 2011 at 11:22 history edited Donu Arapura CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 28, 2011 at 19:00 history answered Donu Arapura CC BY-SA 2.5