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Mar 30, 2011 at 15:32 comment added GH from MO @Hugo: Actually I have not verified my claim. I am sure the product of first primes is the worst case, but this requires a rigorous proof!
Mar 29, 2011 at 20:16 comment added Matt Young I admit I was pretty lazy about the constant!
Mar 29, 2011 at 19:48 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Very good point GH, this is the worst case namely when $N\sim\prod\limits_{p\leq\log(N)}p$. Then one uses the fact that $\prod_{p\leq x}(1-1/p)\sim\frac{1}{\log(x)}$. So we don't quite get a constant but $c>>\frac{1}{\log\log(x)}$ is good enough!
Mar 28, 2011 at 19:02 comment added GH from MO Perhaps it is worth noting that $c\gg\frac{1}{\log\log x}$ which is sufficient.
Mar 28, 2011 at 17:03 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Mar 28, 2011 at 15:54 history answered Matt Young CC BY-SA 2.5