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Feb 7, 2017 at 14:09 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 26, 2011 at 2:10 vote accept Vamsi
Mar 25, 2011 at 18:10 history edited Gjergji Zaimi
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Mar 25, 2011 at 17:38 answer added Mohan Ramachandran timeline score: 9
Mar 25, 2011 at 13:03 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 18
Mar 25, 2011 at 3:05 history edited Vamsi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 25, 2011 at 0:59 comment added David E Speyer Another nitpicky point: Take a holomorphic $(p-1, 0)$-form $\eta$ which isn't closed. Then $d \eta$ is a non-zero $d$-exact $(p,0)$ form, and it certainly isn't of the form $\partial \overline{\partial}$. So you'd better specify that both $p$ and $q \geq 1$. Again, in the compact Kahler case, all global holomorphic $(p-1,0)$ forms are closed, so this doesn't come up.
Mar 25, 2011 at 0:57 comment added David E Speyer An obvious point: A nonzero $1$-form cannot be $\partial \overline{\partial}$-exact, so you want to specify that you are thinking of degrees $2$ and higher. Although this seems nitpicky, in the compact Kahler case, the $\partial \overline{\partial}$ lemma has no such hypothesis: A $d$-exact $(1,0)$ form or $(0,1)$ on a compact Kahler manifold must be $0$.
Mar 25, 2011 at 0:25 history edited Vamsi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 24, 2011 at 20:58 history asked Vamsi CC BY-SA 2.5