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Mar 26, 2011 at 1:55 comment added Syang Chen Interesting proof. This reminds me the Hartogs' theorem, which states that if $F(z_1,z_2)$ is analytic (which is next to polynomial) in the complex variables $z_1$ and $z_2$ seperately, then $F(z_1,z_2)$ is analytic jointly in $z_1$ and $z_2$.
Mar 22, 2011 at 14:50 comment added Ashutosh Start by noticing that for infinitely (in fact, uncountably) many y, f(x, y) has the same degree. Now go hunt for their coefficients.
Mar 22, 2011 at 13:52 comment added mathahada Very nice. How to prove that $f$ must be a polynomial if $F$ is uncountable?
Mar 22, 2011 at 13:40 history answered Keivan Karai CC BY-SA 2.5