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Charles Matthews
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I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2below point (d) is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on g - f, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (x in the current notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2 is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on g - f, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (x in the current notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in below point (d) is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on g - f, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (x in the current notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

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Charles Matthews
  • 12.6k
  • 35
  • 64

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2 is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on H - Fg - f, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (zx in yourthe current notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2 is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on H - F, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (z in your notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2 is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on g - f, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (x in the current notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.

Source Link
Charles Matthews
  • 12.6k
  • 35
  • 64

I think this isn't too bad, and your guess in Q2 is justified. I doubt it depends on the detailed formulae.

Suppose we concentrate on H - F, which is constrained to have integral 0? And by a change of origin to have a graph that is non-positive on the negative real axis, and non-negative on the positive real axis. The main issue is that multiplying it by the independent variable (z in your notation) you will get a non-negative function, so a non-negative integral. I believe this is what you want.