Timeline for Why can projective varieties just have abelian group operations?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 22, 2011 at 6:27 | vote | accept | Marc Palm | ||
| Mar 21, 2011 at 18:39 | comment | added | Dan Petersen | See also mathoverflow.net/questions/12814/… | |
| Mar 21, 2011 at 16:35 | comment | added | Martin Brandenburg | More generally, every abelian scheme is abelian in the honest sense of the word. The standard proof uses the rigidity lemma: Every morphism between abelian schemes fixing $e$ is a group morphism. In particular, $x \mapsto x^{-1}$ is a group morphism, i.e. the group is abelian. | |
| Mar 21, 2011 at 13:23 | answer | added | Emerton | timeline score: 35 | |
| Mar 21, 2011 at 13:23 | answer | added | Francesco Polizzi | timeline score: 9 | |
| Mar 21, 2011 at 13:17 | answer | added | Qfwfq | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 21, 2011 at 13:04 | history | asked | Marc Palm | CC BY-SA 2.5 |