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Mar 21, 2011 at 0:28 comment added Jack Huizenga Tom's comments sum up my thoughts nicely. There really isn't an issue here--either set of definitions really does give the same thing.
Mar 20, 2011 at 13:59 comment added R. Andrew Hicks Jack - Spivak's "cube-sphere", as you so elegantly put it, does come equipped with a metric. So it has geometry, which makes it isometric as a metric space to a cube.
Mar 20, 2011 at 3:54 comment added Tom Goodwillie Every smooth manifold in $\mathbb R^n$ in the sense of the Milnor book ("concrete manifold") is canonically a smooth manifold in the abstract sense. If $M$ and $N$ are concrete manifolds, then the smooth maps between them in the concrete sense are precisely the smooth maps between them in the abstract sense. That is, we have a full and faithful functor from the one category to the other. In fact, it is an equivalence of categories -- that is, every abstract manifold is diffeomorphic to some concrete manifold -- that is, every abstract manifold can be smoothly embedded in some $\mathbb R^n$.
Mar 20, 2011 at 3:30 comment added Jack Huizenga If you take a cube, identify it with a sphere, and give it the differentiable structure from the sphere, then it can't be smoothly embedded in R^3 as a cube, and I would thus be reluctant to call it a cube anymore. It can be embedded as a sphere, however, and the smooth functions on it will all locally extend to smooth functions on the ambient space. In this sense Spivak's "cube-sphere" is also a manifold in G&P. Once you forget the embedding in G&P, the categories are the same.
Mar 20, 2011 at 3:24 comment added R. Andrew Hicks @Jack: My last statement "the two categories of differentiable manifolds obtained from G&P and Spivak are very different." is not correct.
Mar 20, 2011 at 3:02 comment added R. Andrew Hicks @Jack: Given the G&P definitions the cube is simply not a differentiable manifold, as you point out, so of course it isn't diffeomorphic to the usual round $S^2$. They are however, homeomorphic. From the viewpoint of the Spivak Vol. 1 definitions you would say "they are homeomorphic and AFTER you put a (any in fact) differentiable structure on the cube then it is a theorem that it is diffeomorphic to $S^2$." If this is right then the usage is really different. (Another way to say this(?): the two categories of differentiable manifolds obtained from G&P and Spivak are very different.)
Mar 19, 2011 at 22:21 comment added Jack Huizenga Another way of putting it is this: every smooth manifold has an embedding in some R^n, in such a way that the smooth functions on the manifold are (pullbacks of) those functions on the image which can be locally extended to smooth functions on open neighborhoods.
Mar 19, 2011 at 20:24 comment added Jack Huizenga No, I don't believe it is a different notion. Perhaps the confusion is that a cube in the sense of G&P is not a smooth manifold--thinking of a sphere as homeomorphically embedded in R^n as a cube does not put a smooth manifold structure on the sphere.
Mar 19, 2011 at 16:16 comment added R. Andrew Hicks Thanks for that clarification. So it really is a different definition of diffeomorphism, and so perhaps is deserving of a different name, like 'ambient diffeomorphism'.
Mar 19, 2011 at 12:24 comment added Tom Goodwillie If you take the point of view, as in these books, that smooth manifolds are certain subsets of $\mathbb R^n$ and inherit their smooth structure from $\mathbb R^n$, then there is no such thing as two smooth structures on the same set. But there is such a thing, obviously, as two smooth manifolds related by a homeomorphism that is not a diffeomorphism. And there is also such a thing, not obviously, as two smooth manifolds related by a homeomorphism but not by any diffeomorphism.
Mar 19, 2011 at 1:13 history answered R. Andrew Hicks CC BY-SA 2.5