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Mar 12, 2011 at 16:46 history edited John Jiang CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 12, 2011 at 16:45 comment added John Jiang @James: I agree that even if starting at deterministic initial state, counterexample exists if $f$ is not required to be an eigenfunction. But I don't quite understand your last 2-state example. The starting variance is always 0 right?
Mar 12, 2011 at 16:39 history edited John Jiang CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 12, 2011 at 16:34 history edited John Jiang CC BY-SA 2.5
Change the function $f$ from arbitrary to eigenfunction, specified that the chain starts at a single state, restricted to finite state ergodic markov chains
Mar 12, 2011 at 15:33 answer added André Schlichting timeline score: 1
Mar 12, 2011 at 14:40 history edited Nate Eldredge CC BY-SA 2.5
Fill in mathbb's
Mar 12, 2011 at 13:07 comment added camomille Take any finite chain with an absorbing state and where all other states are transient. Then the variance converges to $0$.
Mar 12, 2011 at 8:39 comment added James Martin Not sure I understand the question. What do you take for the initial distribution? If the chain is stationary, the quantity doesn't depend on $t$. On the other hand, if you allow a general initial distribution, just start in some distribution where the variance of the test function is higher than it is under the stationary distribution. Even if you insist on a deterministic initial state, pretty much any 2-state chain will give a counterexample - take a function whose variance is not maximised by the stationary distribution, and consider approaching stationarity from one extreme or the other.
Mar 12, 2011 at 7:43 history asked John Jiang CC BY-SA 2.5