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Mar 10, 2011 at 0:23 comment added fherzig At least when $r+s = p$ and $p > 2$ it doesn't matter, it's true in both cases. (First of all the $V_k$ remain irreducible as reps. of the finite group. And $V_p$ isn't semisimple even as rep. of the finite group.)
Mar 10, 2011 at 0:08 comment added shenghao Excuse me but, do you mean "simple" or "not semi-simple" regarded as representations of the finite group of $\mathbb F_p$-points or rational representations of $SL_2$ over $\mathbb F_p?$
Mar 10, 2011 at 0:08 comment added fherzig In fact $r + s \ge p$ suffices, as Serre also points out in section 1.3 of his paper. The point is that there is a surjection $V_r \otimes V_s \to V_p$ and $V_p$ isn't semisimple.
Mar 9, 2011 at 21:31 history answered Bruce Westbury CC BY-SA 2.5