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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Mar 9, 2011 at 22:26 vote accept JeremyKun
Mar 9, 2011 at 15:37 comment added HJRW Also by Robert Bell's answer to the same question...
Mar 9, 2011 at 13:46 comment added Igor Belegradek Your question is answered in my answer to mathoverflow.net/questions/46874/…
Mar 9, 2011 at 4:33 answer added HJRW timeline score: 21
Mar 9, 2011 at 3:38 answer added Andy Putman timeline score: 20
Mar 9, 2011 at 3:32 comment added Paul I think the point is that if a 3-manifold has $\pi_1$ a free product, it is a connected sum (Stallings?) and hence has $\pi_2\ne 0$ (sphere theorem) and thus isn't hyperbolic.
Mar 9, 2011 at 2:00 history asked JeremyKun CC BY-SA 2.5