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Timeline for "P vs NP" and "NP vs P/Poly"

Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5

4 events
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Mar 8, 2011 at 0:19 comment added Michal R. Przybylek Personal belief. OP asked if NP \subset P/Poly implies \Sigma_0^p = PH. The Karp–Lipton theorem states that if NP \subset P/Poly then \Sigma_2^p = PH. I would say that this statement is ``almost'' as good as the orginal one, and its conclusion is (almost) equally unbelievable :-)
Mar 7, 2011 at 22:54 comment added Gerry Myerson What does "unlikely" mean here?
Mar 7, 2011 at 21:01 vote accept LowerBounds
Mar 7, 2011 at 18:55 history answered Michal R. Przybylek CC BY-SA 2.5