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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Mar 4, 2011 at 15:11 history edited David Carchedi
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Mar 4, 2011 at 14:38 answer added David Carchedi timeline score: 6
Mar 4, 2011 at 11:54 comment added Mattia Talpo One point (which doesn't answer your question, I know) is that representability of the diagonal follows from the existence of an atlas (i.e. a smooth surjective and representable morphism from an algebraic space $X\to \mathcal{X}$). See for example prop (4.3.2) of Champs Algébriques.
Mar 4, 2011 at 5:58 history edited David Roberts CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 4, 2011 at 5:54 comment added David Roberts @Scott - regarding 'the' - whoops! I didn't mean that. And yes, I think you've hit the nail on the head: I really want to know if one can avoid using representability of the diagonal explicitly in favour of properties arising from a presenting groupoid.
Mar 4, 2011 at 5:41 comment added S. Carnahan Since you can reconstruct the diagonal up to 2-isomorphism from a presenting groupoid, it seems tautological that there isn't any (isomorphism-invariant) property of the diagonal that can't be derived from properties of a presenting groupoid. Is that really the question you mean to ask? Also, I protest at your use of the word "the" in front of "presenting".
Mar 4, 2011 at 3:00 comment added David Roberts @Mike - but we can require representability of the atlas map separately, which is essential, and if pressed, require that any map from a scheme to the stack is representable. If it is this latter property which is used, then that is the sort of answer I am looking for. And any other reasons too, of course.
Mar 4, 2011 at 2:14 comment added Mike Skirvin I've always thought that the condition that the diagonal is representable is useful because it is equivalent to requiring that any map from a scheme to your stack is representable. In particular, it implies that the map from an atlas of the stack to the stack is representable, which is certainly important.
Mar 3, 2011 at 22:53 history asked David Roberts CC BY-SA 2.5