Timeline for Is it true that if $\operatorname{Ext}^{1}_{A}(P,A/I)=0 $ for all $ I$ then $P$ is projective?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Jun 25, 2013 at 14:39 | history | suggested | agt | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
improved formatting
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| Jun 25, 2013 at 14:38 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jun 25, 2013 at 14:39 | |||||
| Jun 25, 2013 at 3:02 | review | Late answers | |||
| Jun 25, 2013 at 14:38 | |||||
| Mar 3, 2011 at 18:46 | comment | added | Simon Wadsley | Well known but not provable as illustrated in another answer. Maybe it should go as an answer to the common false beliefs in mathematics question that has just resurfaced again. | |
| Mar 3, 2011 at 17:57 | history | answered | Hicham YAMOUL | CC BY-SA 2.5 |