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Feb 26, 2011 at 16:17 comment added Kimball I at least would appreciate it, but don't feel the need to write it just on my account. It may be well-understood by experts. I just never learned p-adic/Iwasawa theories (though I'd like to better understand it).
Feb 26, 2011 at 10:56 history edited jvo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 26, 2011 at 9:48 comment added jvo Yes, that is exactly what the notation means, and there is no mistake with the root number. Sorry to have compressed so much information into such a short paragraph. The deduction in fact requires far more justification than I have given. I wrote a paper about this while I was a grad student, but never submitted it. (The result seemed to be well known to experts, and has also been subsumed by subsequent results/projects). Perhaps I'll write a note about this now, as the deduction is perhaps not as well understood as I had assumed ... in which case, I will post a link here :)
Feb 26, 2011 at 9:40 history edited jvo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 26, 2011 at 1:25 comment added Kimball Thanks, though I must confess I don't understand much of what you say. So the bottom two sums mean $L(f \times \rho \cdot \psi, 1)$ is nonzero for all $\psi$ in the first case, and all but 1 $\psi$ in the second? Am I misreading the epsilon factor condition?
Feb 25, 2011 at 12:46 history edited jvo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 25, 2011 at 12:21 history edited jvo CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 25, 2011 at 12:05 history answered jvo CC BY-SA 2.5