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Timeline for Molien for modular representations?

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Feb 23, 2011 at 18:25 comment added Kevin Ventullo The union is disjoint by uniqueness of the decomposition $g=h_1h_2$. Anyway, Mariano's argument is cleaner.
Feb 23, 2011 at 16:08 comment added darij grinberg Oh. Wait. In $G=\bigcup_g P_g\cdot g$, why is the union disjoint?
Feb 23, 2011 at 15:58 vote accept darij grinberg
Feb 23, 2011 at 16:08
Feb 23, 2011 at 15:58 comment added darij grinberg Ah, thanks! I was stupid. I confused the "well known lemma" with a lemma I wanted to use in my proof and couldn't show. They only see what they want to see.
Feb 23, 2011 at 15:16 comment added Johannes Hahn @darij: The reference is "folklore". Write $ord(g)=ab$ with relative prime $a,b$ and choose $s,t$ such that $sa+bt=1$. Then $g=g^1=(g^a)^s \cdot (g^b)^t$. Obviously the two factors commute and $ord((g^a)^s) | b$ and $ord((g^b)^t) | a$. In fact the orders equal those terms because $ab=ord(g)=ord((g^a)^s)ord((g^b)^t) | ba$. One the other hand: If $g=xy$ with $ord(x)=b, ord(y)=a$ and $xy=yx$ then $g^{sa} = (x^{sa})(y^{sa})=x^{sa}=x^{sa \mod b}=x$ and $g^{tb}=(x^{tb})(y^{tb})=y^{tb}=y^{tb \mod a}=y$.
Feb 23, 2011 at 12:55 comment added darij grinberg Thanks. I didn't even read your post to the end; after the "well known lemma" it was immediately clear to me. I am going to accept your solution as soon as you add a reference to this lemma.
Feb 23, 2011 at 9:09 history answered Kevin Ventullo CC BY-SA 2.5